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I think your explanation is reasonable, but that's no excuse.

His US model makes a lot of allowances for things like how self-proclaimed independents are likely to vote.

It didn't work as well in the UK though.



I have no idea about the political culture in the UK. Is it possible that he just didn't have as much data to work with? In other words, a lot fewer relevant polls to feed into a model?


we don't generally have very many regional polls, and certainly not constituency polls, that are available for aggregators (an internal poll in a key marginal, perhaps.) There's a lot less money spent on UK elections.


Indeed, I don't disagree. I'm just saying I think it may well be impossible to be completely accurate, or even remotely accurate, in crazy elections.




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