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Because Russia did undeniably open hostilities? They even admitted to this both times. The second admission being in the form of announcing a “special military operation” when the ceasefire was still active. We also have photographic evidence of them building forces on a border during a ceasefire and then invading. This is like responding to: “did Alexander the Great invade Egypt” by going on a diatribe about how much war there was in the ancient world and that the ptolemaic dynasty believed themselves the rightful rulers therefore who’s to say if they did invade or just take their rightful place. There is an objective record here: whether or not people want to try and hide it behind circuitous arguments is different. If we’re going down this road I can easily redefine any known historical event with hand-wavy nonsense that doesn’t actually have anything to do with the historical record of events just “vibes.”


Okay - but EXACTLY how wrong (or not correct) is the second answer?

Please tell me precisely on a 0-1 floating scale, where 0 is "yes" and "no".


One might say, if this were a test being done by a human in a history class, that the answer is 100% incorrect given the actual record of events and failure of statement to mention that actual record. You can argue the causes but that’s not the question.


We'll agree to disagree. /s




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