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Yes, and plenty of other people would disagree, saying that most pirates wouldn't have bought a copy anyway, so it's not denying him a sale. This thing you want everybody to just agree on is the central matter of the debate.


Good point. I agree. But if they wouldn't have bought a copy, then they weren't entitled to using it in the first place correct?

I mean, companies generally prefer you pirate their products than their competitors. But if we're going to be absolutely critical, the company can claim "If you aren't going to pay us, you have no right to use our product. You used our product without paying us."


Yes, they weren't entitled to use it. Yet they do use it. So what to do? It's not a lost sale just because they're not entitled to use it.




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