But, as you granted, even demanded the use by contract, is the right at this point still exclusive to you? Hasn't it been partially transferred under the restrictions of this very contract?
The point being: How does you licensing the alleged infringer to use the logo, even demanding the placement of said logo under the terms of said contract, not affect your ability to claim infringement? How could you make such a claim in good faith?
You can't make the claim in good faith. And you could, very theoretically, face consequences. But not perjury, because it's only perjury if it wasn't your copyright in the first place.
