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Some speculated that prosecutors had gone soft on looting after the Black Lives Matter protests in 2020. But it is hard to see any such trend in the data: generally states with more shoplifting prosecute more shoplifters

The claim is about the time-series comparison, and the rebuttal is about the cross section comparison. Is the journalist in question stupid, gaslighting, or both?



It's funny they say it's "hard to see any such trend in the data" of arrests in a post-Ferguson America when the data is so apparent and its meaning so contested that it has its own Wikipedia article.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ferguson_effect

It would be totally illogical to pretend that such massive sweeping change in public perception of policing would have no effect on the activity of the police themselves.


The rebuttal was explaining the trend that does exist.


Where do they explain that the trend doesn't exist? They make no statement that applies over time.


You just don't get the message ig? Maybe if you just stop thinking and accept that 2+2=5 it will make sense :)




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