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I don't think I understand this. Take two scenarios. In both cases, I'm 22 years old, just exiting college, and starting my first job.

In scenario 1, I start working at a 1000 person company that offers insurance benefits. I sign up for their plan, and my employer pays for nearly all of it.

In scenario 2, I start working at a tiny company that doesn't offer insurance benefits. I find an individual plan (coincidentally from the same insurance company used in scenario 1) that suits me, and sign up for it, paying out of pocket.

The total amount paid to the insurance company in scenario 1 is, as is typical, lower than in scenario 2.

In both of these scenarios, the insurance company doesn't know anything about me. For scenario 1, sure, they might know the mean and variance of expected health costs of the 1000 people already at the company, but that does not extend to me. They cannot assume I will conform to the rest of the group. I am new, and an unknown, and they do not know how I will affect those statistics. For scenario 2, I'm just another independent signup. I might have health care costs in line with the average of all of their beneficiaries, or I might be an outlier (on either end), or something in between. But that's the same as scenario 1.

This feels like it has nothing to do with risk assessment; this is just a reflection of the company in scenario 1 having greater negotiation power because they're representing 1000 people, versus you just representing yourself.



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