Still I don't see any source. Your conclusion has no value given that there are many more important factors influencing the differences in criminal rates, etc. between middle class kids and lower classes kids compared to spoiling. The education level of the parents is the first thing that comes to mind for example. Ergo, unless you link some proper study that demonstrate that correlation, I don't think that you can write such unsubstantiated strong assertions to validate your theory.

This was my conclusion: "It is not all down to parenting changes only, but given better objective results the nostalgia for good old times is not really fact based." Not a single part of my comment compared spoiled kid with kid of same circumstances who was less spoiled.

If you are argue that current children needs to be insulted etc more because that is how it was done in the past, then bringing in measurable differences between cohorts is perfectly valid argument. There is nothing measurable to support that argument either. The past was not perfect and argument by idealized nostalgia is not facts based.

As much as it feels good to imagine how you got back to that kid and how that kid would behave better, it is as much fantasy as thinking that all behavioral problems can be solved by hugs. I will make one more unsupported claim however: insulting children is and was not about making them behave better - it was about making educator feel better.

You are not bringing any whatsoever proof of the better objective results that are caused by spoiling children. Intuitively I would say that spoiling children is a negative factor and probably it is more true than your assertion.

You are seriously arguing against your own imagination. It is kinda like strawman, except you also lie about what I said.

Why should I defend the point I never made?